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PRMIA 8008 Exam Syllabus Topics:
| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Asset-Liability Management (ALM) | - Interest rate risk in the banking book (IRRBB) - Liquidity risk management |
| Credit Risk | - Credit portfolio risk - Credit risk measurement and modeling
|
| Market Risk | - Market risk measurement techniques
|
| Counterparty Risk | - Counterparty credit exposure - Derivatives credit risk considerations - Netting and collateral management |
| Risk Management Frameworks | - Risk measurement and reporting frameworks - Enterprise risk management principles
|
| Funds Transfer Pricing (FTP) | - Internal pricing of funds and liquidity allocation - FTP methodologies |
| Operational Risk | - Operational risk management techniques
|
PRMIA PRM Certification - Exam III: Risk Management Frameworks, Operational Risk, Credit Risk, Counterparty Risk, Market Risk, ALM, FTP - 2015 Edition Sample Questions:
1. The cumulative probability of default for a security for 4 years is 11.47%. The marginal probability of default for the security for year 5 is 5% during year 5. What is the cumulative probability of default for the security for 5 years?
A) None of the above
B) 16.47%
C) 5.00%
D) 15.90%
2. long bond position is hedged using a short position in the futures market. If the hedge performs as expected, then which of the following statements is most accurate:
A) the investor will be able to avoid losses
B) None of the above
C) the investor will be able to avoid losses and will also be able to keep the gains on his positions
D) the investor will be able to avoid losses but will also forgo the gains on his positions
3. An investor enters into a 5-year total return swap with Bank A, with the investor paying a fixed rate of 6% annually on a notional value of $100m to the bank and receiving the returns of the S&P500 index with an identical notional value. The swap is reset monthly, ie the payments are exchanged monthly. On Jan 1 of the fourth year, after settling the last month's payments, the bank enters bankruptcy. What is the legal claim that the hedge fund has against the bank in the bankruptcy court?
A) The replacement value of the swap
B) $6m
C) $0, as all payments on the swap are current
D) $100m
4. When pricing credit risk for an exposure, which of the following is a better measure than the others:
A) Mark-to-market
B) Expected Exposure (EE)
C) Notional amount
D) Potential Future Exposure (PFE)
5. Under the standardized approach to determining operational risk capital, operations risk capital is equal to:
A) a fixed percentage (different for each business line) of the gross income of the eight specified business lines, averaged over three years
B) a fixed percentage of the latest gross income of the bank
C) a varying percentage, determined by the national regulator, of the gross revenue of each of the bank's business lines
D) 15% of the average gross income (considering only the positive years) of the past three years
Solutions:
| Question # 1 Answer: D | Question # 2 Answer: D | Question # 3 Answer: A | Question # 4 Answer: B | Question # 5 Answer: A |







