EC-COUNCIL 112-57 Dumps - 100% Cover Real Exam Questions (Updated 77 Questions) Real 112-57 dumps - Real EC-COUNCIL dumps PDF NEW QUESTION # 36 Which of the following tools helps forensic experts analyze user activity in the Microsoft Edge browser? A. MZHistoryView B. BrowsingHistoryView C. MZCacheView D. ChromeHistoryView Answer: B Explanation:In Windows forensics, analyzingMicrosoft Edgeuser activity [...]

EC-COUNCIL 112-57 Dumps - 100% Cover Real Exam Questions (Updated 77 Questions) [Q36-Q51]

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EC-COUNCIL 112-57 Dumps - 100% Cover Real Exam Questions (Updated 77 Questions)

Real 112-57 dumps - Real EC-COUNCIL dumps PDF

NEW QUESTION # 36
Which of the following tools helps forensic experts analyze user activity in the Microsoft Edge browser?

  • A. MZHistoryView
  • B. BrowsingHistoryView
  • C. MZCacheView
  • D. ChromeHistoryView

Answer: B

Explanation:
In Windows forensics, analyzingMicrosoft Edgeuser activity commonly involves extracting and correlating browser artifacts such asvisited URLs, visit counts, timestamps, download references, and cached content indicators. A practical forensic approach is to use a tool that canparse and normalize history artifacts across multiple browsers, because investigations often require comparing activity between Edge and other installed browsers on the same workstation.BrowsingHistoryViewis designed specifically for that purpose: it aggregates browsing history from different browsers and presents it in a unified timeline-style view, which supports rapid triage and cross-validation of user activity.
By contrast,MZHistoryViewandMZCacheVieware associated withMozilla-family artifacts(history and cache), making them appropriate for Firefox-related examinations rather than Edge.ChromeHistoryViewis specialized forGoogle Chromehistory databases and does not target Edge artifacts as its primary source. In forensic workflow terms, a multi-browser history tool is valuable because it helps identify patterns such as repeated access to specific domains, time windows of browsing activity, and correlation with other Windows artifacts (prefetch, jump lists,


NEW QUESTION # 37
In which of the following attacks does an attacker trick high-profile executives such as CEOs, CFOs, politicians, and celebrities to reveal critical corporate and personal information through email or website spoofing?

  • A. Whaling
  • B. Spimming
  • C. Smishing
  • D. Identity fraud

Answer: A

Explanation:
The scenario describes a targeted social-engineering attack aimed specifically athigh-profile individuals (CEOs, CFOs, politicians, celebrities) and usesemail or website spoofingto deceive them into disclosing sensitive information. In digital forensics and incident response documentation, this is most accurately categorized aswhaling, a specialized form of phishing that focuses on "big targets" (often called "high-value targets" or "VIPs"). Whaling campaigns typically use highly tailored pretexts (e.g., legal subpoenas, board communications, invoice/payment requests, HR or executive directives) and may include spoofed sender domains, look-alike websites, or fraudulent login pages to harvest credentials and confidential corporate data.
Because executives often have access to financial systems, strategic documents, and privileged communications, attackers concentrate effort on realism and personalization, making whaling distinct from broad, generic phishing.
By contrast,smishingis phishing conducted via SMS/text messages,spimmingis spam over instant messaging platforms, andidentity fraudis a broader category involving impersonation/misuse of personal data but does not specifically denote the executive-targeted spoofing technique described. Therefore, the attack type in the question isWhaling (A).


NEW QUESTION # 38
Jennifer, a forensics investigation team member, was inspecting a compromised system. After gathering all the evidence related to the compromised system, she disconnected the system from the network to stop the spread of the incident to other systems.
Identify the role played by Jennifer in the forensics investigation.

  • A. Incident responder
  • B. Evidence manager
  • C. Expert witness
  • D. Incident analyzer

Answer: A

Explanation:
Jennifer's actions match the responsibilities of anincident responder, whose job spans immediatecontainment, preservation, and stabilizationactivities during an active or recently active security incident. In standard digital forensics and incident response (DFIR) procedures, responders first take steps topreserve evidence(e.g., documenting the scene, capturing volatile data when appropriate, and collecting relevant system artifacts) and then executecontainment measuresto prevent further harm. Disconnecting a compromised host from the network is a classic containment control used to stop malware propagation, block command-and-control communications, and prevent lateral movement to other systems.
Anincident analyzertypically focuses on deeper technical analysis-timeline reconstruction, root cause determination, and correlating artifacts across hosts and logs-rather than performing immediate containment.
Anevidence manageris primarily responsible for maintaining evidence integrity, chain of custody, storage, labeling, and access control, not operational containment. Anexpert witnessprovides formal testimony and interpretation in legal or disciplinary proceedings and is not usually involved in live containment actions.
Since Jennifer bothgathered evidenceand thenisolated the system to stop spread, the role most consistent with documented DFIR responsibilities isIncident responder (A).


NEW QUESTION # 39
John, a forensic officer, was working on a criminal case. He employed imaging software to create a copy of data from the suspect device on a storage medium for further investigation. For developing an image of the original data, John used a software application that does not allow an unauthorized user to alter the image content on storage media, thereby retaining an unaltered image copy.
Identify the data acquisition step performed by John in the above scenario.

  • A. Planned for contingency
  • B. Validated data acquisition
  • C. Enabled write protection on the evidence media
  • D. Sanitized the target media

Answer: C

Explanation:
The scenario emphasizes that John used an application (or mechanism) thatprevents alteration of the acquired image content, ensuring the image remainsunalteredand protected from unauthorized modification. In forensic acquisition standards, this corresponds toenabling write protectionduring imaging-commonly implemented using awrite blocker(hardware or controlled software write-protection) to prevent any writes to the source evidence and, where applicable, to protect the integrity of the evidence copy from accidental or unauthorized changes. The purpose is to preserve evidential integrity by ensuring that neither the original media nor the forensic image is modified during handling, analysis preparation, or transfer.
"Validated data acquisition" refers to confirming the image is an exact duplicate, typically by computing and comparing cryptographic hashes (e.g., MD5/SHA) of the source and the acquired image. While validation is essential, the question specifically highlightspreventing alteration, not verifying equality. "Sanitized the target media" is the step of wiping/clearing the destination drive before acquisition to avoid contamination, which is not what is described. "Planned for contingency" relates to operational planning for unexpected issues (equipment failure, encryption, power loss), not integrity protection. Therefore, the best match isEnabled write protection on the evidence media (A).


NEW QUESTION # 40
Williams, a forensic specialist, was tasked with performing a static malware analysis on a suspect system in an organization. For this purpose, Williams used an automated tool to perform a string search and saved all the identified strings in a text file. After analyzing the strings, he determined all the harmful actions that were performed by malware.
Identify the tool employed by Williams in the above scenario.

  • A. ResourcesExtract
  • B. Ezvid
  • C. R-Drive Image
  • D. Snagit

Answer: A

Explanation:
Instatic malware analysis, one of the quickest ways to infer capability is to extract and reviewstringsembedded in a binary. Strings frequently reveal command-and-control domains/IPs, mutex names, file paths, registry keys, user-agent values, suspicious commands (PowerShell/cmd), API names, error messages, encryption markers, and configuration fragments. Investigators often use automated utilities to extract these readable artifacts andexport them to a text filefor later triage, keyword searching, and correlation with other evidence (network logs, endpoint telemetry, and threat intel).
Among the provided options,ResourcesExtractbest matches this workflow. It is designed to extract embedded content from executable files-particularly Windows PE resources-and can export extracted textual items (including resource strings/strings tables and related embedded text) into external files for analysis. This aligns with "performed a string search and saved all the identified strings in a text file." The other choices do not fit:R-Drive Imageis a disk imaging/backup tool;Ezvidis for screen recording; andSnagitis for screenshots/screen capture. They do not perform automated extraction of strings from malware binaries as a static-analysis step. Therefore, the correct answer isResourcesExtract (B).


NEW QUESTION # 41
Michael, a forensic expert, was assigned to investigate an incident that involved unauthorized intrusion attempts. In this process, Michael identified all the open ports on a system and disabled them because these open ports can allow attackers to install malicious services and compromise the security of the system or network.
Which of the following commands assisted Michael in identifying open ports in the above scenario?

  • A. ifconfig <interface> -promisc
  • B. netstat -rn
  • C. nmap -sT localhost
  • D. netstat -i

Answer: C

Explanation:
To identifyopen ports, investigators need a method that actively checks which TCP/UDP ports on a host are accepting connections. The commandnmap -sT localhostperforms aTCP Connect scanagainst the local system. In a connect scan, Nmap uses the operating system's normal networking API to attempt a full TCP three-way handshake to each targeted port. If the handshake completes, the port is reported asopen; if it is refused, it isclosed; and if filtered by firewall rules, it may appearfiltered. This directly supports Michael's objective of enumerating open ports so they can be reviewed and disabled to reduce the attack surface and prevent malicious services from being installed.
The other options do not enumerate open ports in the same way.netstat -ishows interface-level statistics (packets, errors) rather than listing listening services.netstat -rndisplays the routing table (routes and gateways), which helps understand network paths but not which ports are open.ifconfig <interface> -promisc relates to enabling/disabling promiscuous mode on an interface for packet capture, not port discovery.
Therefore, the command that assisted in identifying open ports isnmap -sT localhost (C).


NEW QUESTION # 42
Clark, a digital forensic expert, was assigned to investigate a malicious activity performed on an organization' s network. The organization provided Clark with all the information related to the incident. In this process, he assessed the impact of the incident on the organization, reasons for and source of the incident, steps required to tackle the incident, investigation team required to handle the case, investigative procedures, and possible outcome of the forensic process.
Identify the type of analysis performed by Clark in the above scenario.

  • A. Data analysis
  • B. Log analysis
  • C. Traffic analysis
  • D. Case analysis

Answer: D

Explanation:
The activities described align withcase analysis, which is the structured, high-level evaluation performed at the beginning (and throughout) a digital forensic investigation to define scope, strategy, resources, and expected deliverables. Case analysis focuses on understanding theoverall incident context: how the organization is affected (business/operational impact), what is believed to have happened (incident reasons and likely source), and what must be done to control and investigate it (containment steps and investigative approach). It also includes planning elements such as identifying theinvestigation team composition(roles, skills, authority), definingproceduresto be followed (evidence handling, chain of custody, acquisition priorities, legal/HR requirements), and anticipating thepossible outcomes(reports, remediation actions, disciplinary/legal actions, or prosecution support).
By contrast,traffic analysisis narrowly focused on examining network packets/flows to infer communications and attacker behavior;log analysiscenters on parsing and correlating event records (firewall, server, endpoint logs); anddata analysistypically refers to examining acquired artifacts (files, memory images, timelines) for evidentiary content. Because Clark is assessing impact, cause/source, response steps, staffing, procedures, and outcomes-an overall investigative planning and evaluation function-the correct choice isCase analysis (B).


NEW QUESTION # 43
Which of the following file systems is developed by Apple to support Mac OS in its proprietary Macintosh system and replace the Macintosh File System (MFS)?

  • A. Hierarchical File System
  • B. Filesystem Hierarchy Standard
  • C. New Technology File System
  • D. Apple File System

Answer: A

Explanation:
Apple's original Macintosh computers initially usedMFS (Macintosh File System), which had important limitations, including a relatively flat directory model and constraints that became problematic as storage sizes and file organization needs grew. To address these limitations, Apple introducedHFS (Hierarchical File System)-explicitly designed to replace MFS and provide a truehierarchical directory structure(folders within folders), improved metadata handling, and better scalability for the Macintosh platform. From a digital forensics perspective, this historical transition matters because examiners may encounter legacy Macintosh media or disk images where understanding the file system family helps interpret catalog structures, allocation behavior, and metadata artifacts.
The other options do not fit the "replace MFS" requirement.NTFSis Microsoft's Windows file system.APFS (Apple File System)is Apple's modern file system introduced much later (primarily for SSDs, with features like snapshots and strong encryption support) and it replaced HFS+ in newer macOS versions-not MFS.
Filesystem Hierarchy Standard (FHS)is a UNIX/Linux directory layout standard, not a Macintosh disk file system. Therefore, the Apple-developed file system that replaced MFS isHierarchical File System (HFS), which corresponds toOption D.


NEW QUESTION # 44
Which of the following measures is defined as the time to move read or write disc heads from one point to another on the disk?

  • A. Access time
  • B. Seek time
  • C. Mean time
  • D. Delay time

Answer: B

Explanation:
Seek timeis the specific performance measure that describes how long a hard disk drive's actuator takes tomove the read/write heads across the plattersfrom the current track (cylinder) to the target track where the requested data resides. In traditional magnetic HDDs, the heads must be physically repositioned before any sector can be read or written, making seek time a core component of mechanical latency.
Digital forensics materials emphasize understanding this distinction because HDD mechanical behavior affectsacquisition duration, the feasibility of repeated scans, and why imaging or carving operations can take longer on fragmented media. It also helps explain why solid-state drives (SSDs), which have no moving heads, do not have seek time in the same sense and therefore behave differently during large-scale reads.
The other choices are broader or unrelated:access timetypically refers to thetotal time to retrieve data, commonly combiningseek time + rotational latency + transfer time.Delay timeis not the standard term for head movement in disk performance definitions.Mean timeis incomplete as written and is usually part of reliability metrics like mean time between failures, not head positioning. Therefore, the correct measure for head movement time isSeek time (C).


NEW QUESTION # 45
Which of the following techniques is defined as the art of hiding data "behind" other data without the target's knowledge, thereby hiding the existence of the message itself?

  • A. Steganography
  • B. Password cracking
  • C. Program packer
  • D. Artifact wiping

Answer: A

Explanation:
Steganographyis the technique of concealing a messagewithin another seemingly harmless carrier(such as an image, audio file, video, or document) so that theexistence of the hidden message is not apparentto an observer. Digital forensics references distinguish steganography from encryption: encryption scrambles content but usually leaves visible indicators that protected data exists (ciphertext), while steganography aims to make the communication look ordinary, reducing suspicion. In practice, steganographic methods often embed data into redundant or less perceptible parts of the carrier, such as modifying least significant bits in pixel values, altering frequency components in audio, or inserting data into metadata or unused file structures.
The other options do not match the definition.Password crackingis an access technique to recover authentication secrets, not a concealment method.Artifact wipingis an anti-forensics method intended to remove traces (logs, files, slack space remnants), but it does not "hide behind" other data-it destroys or overwrites evidence.Program packerscompress/obfuscate executables to hinder static analysis and detection, but they still produce an executable whose presence is evident; they do not primarily hide messages inside benign files. Therefore, the described "hiding the existence of the message itself" corresponds toSteganography (C).


NEW QUESTION # 46
Which of the following Windows system files is created in the system drive after OS installation to support the internal functions and system service dispatch stubs to executive functions?

  • A. Win32k.sys
  • B. Ntdll.dll
  • C. Ntoskrnl.exe
  • D. Kernel32.dll

Answer: B

Explanation:
Ntdll.dllis the Windows user-mode system library that provides manyinternal NT functions(commonly exposed as "NT Native API" routines such asNt*/Zw*) and, critically, contains thesystem service dispatch stubsused by user-mode code to transition into kernel mode for operating system services. In standard Windows architecture, most user-mode applications call higher-level APIs (for example, Win32 APIs inKernel32.dll), which then ultimately rely onNtdll.dllto perform the final step of invoking the kernel through these system call stubs. This is whyNtdll.dllis a core component loaded into nearly every process and is tightly associated with the boundary between user mode and theexecutivecomponents of the OS.
From a forensics viewpoint, understandingNtdll.dllmatters because it is central to how processes request privileged services, and it is frequently referenced in analyses of process execution, API call chains, and certain user-mode hooking techniques used by malware or anti-forensics tools.
By contrast,Ntoskrnl.exeis the kernel image itself (core kernel/executive),Win32k.sysis a kernel-mode graphics/windowing subsystem component, andKernel32.dllprovides higher-level Win32 APIs rather than the primary system-call stub layer. Hence,Ntdll.dll (C)is the correct answer.


NEW QUESTION # 47
Which of the following layers of the TCP/IP model includes protocols such as Frame Relay, SMDS, Fast Ethernet, SLIP, PPP, FDDI, ATM, Ethernet, and ARP to enable a machine to deliver the desired data to other hosts in the same network?

  • A. Application layer
  • B. Transport layer
  • C. Network access layer
  • D. Internet layer

Answer: C

Explanation:
The protocols listed-Frame Relay, SMDS, Fast Ethernet, SLIP, PPP, FDDI, ATM, Ethernet, and ARP- belong to the portion of the TCP/IP model responsible forlocal network deliveryand direct interaction with the physical media and link-layer addressing. In TCP/IP terminology, this is theNetwork Access layer(also called the Link layer or Network Interface layer). It combines functions that map closely to the OSIData LinkandPhysicallayers.
This layer is essential for delivering frames within the same network segment because it governs how devices access the medium (e.g., Ethernet), how frames are formatted and transmitted, and how hardware addressing works.ARP (Address Resolution Protocol)is especially important here: it resolvesIP addresses to MAC addressesso that an IP packet can be encapsulated into a link-layer frame and delivered to the correct local host or next-hop gateway. Technologies like PPP/SLIP support point-to-point links, while Frame Relay/ATM represent WAN/link technologies, all of which still sit under IP and provide the mechanisms for moving data across the immediate network path.
TheInternet layerhandles IP routing between networks, theTransport layerprovides end-to-end host communications (TCP/UDP), and theApplication layerprovides user protocols. Therefore, the correct layer isNetwork access layer (A).


NEW QUESTION # 48
Jack, a forensic investigator, was appointed by an organization to perform a security audit on a Linux system.
In this process, Jack collected information about the present status of the system and listed all the applications running on various ports to detect malicious programs.
Which of the following commands can help Jack determine any programs/processes associated with open ports?

  • A. netstat -rn
  • B. netstat -i
  • C. ip r
  • D. netstat -tulpn

Answer: D

Explanation:
On Linux, a key step in a forensic triage or security audit is mappingopen/listening portsto theowning processso investigators can identify suspicious services (backdoors, unauthorized daemons, rogue remote- access tools) and correlate them with binaries, users, startup mechanisms, and timestamps. The command netstat -tulpnis designed for exactly this purpose. In this switch set:-tlimits output to TCP sockets,-uincludes UDP sockets,-lshows only listening sockets (open ports awaiting connections),-pdisplays the owningprocess name and PID, and-nprevents name resolution by showing numeric IP addresses and ports (faster and avoids altering evidence via DNS queries). This combination yields a concise list of active listening ports and the processes bound to them, which is highly valuable for detecting unexpected services and attributing network exposure to a specific executable.
The other options do not provide process-to-port attribution:netstat -ishows interface statistics,ip rshows the routing table, andnetstat -rndisplays the routing table in numeric form. Therefore, the correct command is netstat -tulpn(D).


NEW QUESTION # 49
Bob, a forensic specialist at a newly established NGO, discovered a security loophole in the NGO's web application, which unintentionally reveals early enrolled NGO members' biodata to attackers. Bob immediately employed a content filtering mechanism to protect all the NGO's data sources and prevent further damage.
Identify the web application threat identified by Bob in the above scenario.

  • A. Information leakage
  • B. Cookie poisoning
  • C. Authentication hijacking
  • D. Buffer overflow

Answer: A

Explanation:
The scenario describes a web application thatunintentionally reveals sensitive member biodatato attackers.
This is a classic case ofinformation leakage, where confidential or private data becomes exposed due to poor access control, improper output handling, verbose error messages, misconfigured endpoints, insecure direct object references, or unintended exposure through pages, APIs, backups, or logs. In forensic and web security documentation, information leakage is defined by theunauthorized disclosure of data, even if the attacker does not alter the system. The key indicator here is that the application is "revealing" biodata-meaning confidentiality is breached.
Bob's response-using acontent filtering mechanism-also aligns with mitigating data exposure. Content filtering can prevent sensitive fields from being returned, mask personally identifiable information, restrict responses based on user role, and sanitize outputs before they leave the server.
The other options do not match the described impact.Buffer overflowis a low-level memory corruption vulnerability, typically associated with native code execution rather than accidental biodata exposure.
Authentication hijackinginvolves taking over sessions/credentials, andcookie poisoninginvolves manipulating cookie values to gain privileges or alter behavior-neither is explicitly indicated. Therefore, the identified threat isInformation leakage (B).


NEW QUESTION # 50
Wesley, a professional hacker, deleted a confidential file in a compromised system using the "/bin/rm/" command to deny access to forensic specialists.
Identify the operating system on which Don has performed the file carving act.

  • A. Android
  • B. Windows
  • C. Linux
  • D. Mac OS

Answer: C

Explanation:
The command path /bin/rm is a hallmark of UNIX/POSIX-style operating systems, where core userland utilities are commonly stored under directories such as /bin, /sbin, and /usr/bin. The utility rm (remove) is the standard UNIX command used to delete directory entries that reference a file's data blocks on disk. This layout and command structure do not match Windows, whichuses different filesystem conventions (drive letters, backslashes, and Windows-native executables) and does not provide /bin/rm as a native path. Android, while Linux-kernel-based, typically exposes shell utilities through environments like /system/bin (and newer systems may use toybox/busybox variants), not the classic /bin hierarchy expected on general-purpose UNIX systems. Between the remaining options, both Linux and macOS are UNIX-like and can include an rm command; however, in digital forensics training and examination contexts, the explicit reference to /bin/rm is most commonly used to indicate a Linux/UNIX command-line environment on a compromised host.
Therefore, the best single-choice answer from the provided options is Linux (D).


NEW QUESTION # 51
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