Free 2023 Symantec SCS 250-561 dumps are available on Google Drive shared by Exam4Free
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NEW QUESTION # 29
Which security threat uses malicious code to destroy evidence, break systems, or encrypt data?
- A. Impact
- B. Execution
- C. Discovery
- D. Persistence
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 30
What is the frequency of feature updates with SES and the Integrated Cyber Defense Manager (ICDm)
- A. Bi-monthly
- B. Weekly
- C. Quarterly
- D. Monthly
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 31
An administrator learns of a potentially malicious file and wants to proactively prevent the file from ever being executed.
What should the administrator do?
- A. Add the filename and SHA-256 hash to a Blacklist policy
- B. Add the file SHA1 to a blacklist policy
- C. Increase the Antimalware policy Intensity to Level 5
- D. Adjust the Antimalware policy age and prevalence settings
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which Symantec component is required to enable two factor authentication with VIP on the Integrated Cyber Defense manager (ICDm)?
- A. A software token and an active directory account
- B. A software token and a VIP server
- C. A physical token or a software token
- D. A physical token or a secure USB key
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 33
What should an administrator know regarding the differences between a Domain and a Tenant in ICDm?
- A. Each customer can have one domain and many tenant
- B. Each customer can have one tenant and many domains
- C. A domain can contain multiple tenants
- D. A tenant can contain multiple domains
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which statement best describes Artificial Intelligence?
- A. A program that can predict when a task should be performed
- B. A program that learns from experience and perform autonomous tasks
- C. A program that is autonomous and needs training to perform a task
- D. A program that automates tasks with a static set of instructions
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 35
What must an administrator check prior to enrolling an on-prem SEPM infrastructure into the cloud?
- A. Clients are running SEP 14.0.1 or late
- B. Clients are running SEP 14.2 or later
- C. Clients are running SEP 14.1.0 or later
- D. Clients are running SEP 12-6 or later
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which file should an administrator create, resulting Group Policy Object (GPO)?
- A. Symantec__Agent_package__32-bit.msi
- B. Symantec__Agent_package_x64.zip
- C. Symantec__Agent_package_x64.exe
- D. Symantec__Agent_package_x64.msi
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 37
Wh.ch Firewall rule components should an administrator configure to block facebook.com use during business hours?
- A. Application, Host(s), and Network Service
- B. Action, Hosts(s), and Schedule
- C. Host(s), Network Interface, and Network Service
- D. Action, Application, and Schedule
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which rule types should be at the bottom of the list when an administrator adds device control rules?
- A. General "brand defined" rules
- B. Specific "device model" rules
- C. Specific "device type" rules
- D. General "catch all" rules
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which two (2) options is an administrator able to use to prevent a file from being fasely detected (Select two)
- A. Rename the file
- B. Add the file to a Whitelist policy
- C. Register the file with Symantec's False Positive database
- D. Reduce the Intensive Protection setting of the Antimalware policy
- E. Assign the file a SHA-256 cryptographic hash
Answer: B,C
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which device page should an administrator view to track the progress of an issued device command?
- A. Activity Update
- B. Command History
- C. Recent Activity
- D. Command Status
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 41
Which dashboard should an administrator access to view the current health of the environment?
- A. The Antimalware Dashboard
- B. The Device Integrity Dashboard
- C. The Security Control Dashboard
- D. The SES Dashboard
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 42
An administrator must create a custom role in ICDm.
Which area of the management console is able to have access restricted or granted?
- A. Custom Dashboard Creation
- B. Hybrid device management
- C. Policy Management
- D. Agent deployment
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 43
Which Firewall Stealth setting prevents OS fingerprinting by sending erroneous OS information back to the attacker?
- A. Enable OS fingerprint protection
- B. Disable OS fingerprint detection
- C. Disable OS fingerprint profiling
- D. Enable OS fingerprint masqueradi
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 44
What version number is assigned to a duplicated policy?
- A. The original policy's number plus one
- B. The original policy's version numb
- C. Zero
- D. One
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 45
An endpoint fails to retrieve content updates.
Which URL should an administrator test in a browser to determine if the issue is network related?
- A. http://update.symantec.com/livetri.zip
- B. https://spocsymantec.com/livetri.zip
- C. https://liveupdate.symantec,com/livetri.zi
- D. https://update.symantec.com/livetri.zip
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 46
What are the Exploit Mitigation security control's mitigation techniques designed to prevent?
- A. Packed file execution
- B. Rootkit downloads
- C. Misbehaving applications
- D. File-less attacks
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 47
Which framework, open and available to any administrator, is utilized to categorize adversarial tactics and for each phase of a cyber attack?
- A. MITRE ATTACK MATRIX
- B. MITRE ATT&CK
- C. MITRE RESPONSE
- D. MITRE ADV&NCE
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 48
What does SES's advanced search feature provide when an administrator searches for a specific term?
- A. A search modifier dialog
- B. A search summary dialog
- C. A suggested terms dialog
- D. A search wizard dialog
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 49
Which communication method is utilized within SES to achieve real-time management?
- A. Push Notification
- B. Heartbeat
- C. Long polling
- D. Standard polling
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 50
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To earn the Symantec 250-561 certification, candidates must pass a 90-minute exam consisting of 65 multiple-choice questions. 250-561 exam covers a variety of topics, including endpoint security architecture, client deployment and management, policy creation and enforcement, threat detection and response, and reporting and analytics. 250-561 exam is designed to test the candidate's ability to effectively deploy, manage, and troubleshoot Symantec Endpoint Security Complete in a variety of environments. Successful completion of the exam demonstrates that the candidate has the knowledge and skills necessary to protect their organization's endpoints from a wide range of threats.
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Following are some new 250-561 Real Exam Questions!: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1VDg40G4oK24pRNE4yZqpuK06W3dDKDPG
