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NEW QUESTION # 96
Which testing metric identifies defect density? [1]
- A. Project
- B. Product
- C. People
- D. Process
Answer: B
Explanation:
Defect density is a testing metric that measures the number of defects identified in a component or system divided by the size of the component or system (expressed in standard measurement terms, e.g., lines-of-code, number of classes or function points)1. Defect density is a product metric, as it evaluates the quality or reliability of a software product2. Therefore, option B is the correct answer. Option A is incorrect because project metrics are metrics that measure the characteristics of the software project, such as cost, schedule, effort, scope, or resources3. Option C is incorrect because process metrics are metrics that measure the characteristics of the software process, such as effectiveness, efficiency, productivity, or maturity. Option D is incorrect because people metrics are metrics that measure the characteristics of the software personnel, such as skills, experience, motivation, or satisfaction. References: 1: Defect Density | ISTQB Glossary 2: Software Testing Metrics: What is, Types & Example 3: [Project Metrics - Software Testing Fundamentals] : [Process Metrics - Software Testing Fundamentals] : [People Metrics - Software Testing Fundamentals]
NEW QUESTION # 97
You have directed one of your testers to construct a "smoke test" to execute against new builds prior to starting formal testing. This is an example of which software development lifecycle activity?
[1]
- A. Project management
- B. Software development and maintenance
- C. Technical support
- D. Change and configuration management
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Change and configuration management. This is because a smoke test is a type of test that checks the basic functionality and stability of a new build before proceeding to more detailed testing. A smoke test is an example of change and configuration management, which is the activity of controlling and tracking the changes made to the software and its configuration items throughout the software development lifecycle. References: Certified Tester Advanced Level Test Manager (CTAL-TM) - ISTQB not-for-profit association, ISTQB Test Manager Certification - ISTQB Exams Worldwide - ISTQB Official Registration, Managing the Test Team - ISTQB not-for-profit association
NEW QUESTION # 98
Which of the following is an advantage of specifying test conditions at a detailed level? [1]
- A. Improves maintainability and reduces ownership costs for the testware
- B. Can be used to leverage use cases for acceptance testing
- C. Saves time
- D. Can be used to identify test coverage gaps
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Can be used to identify test coverage gaps. This is because test conditions are the items or events of a component or system that will be verified by one or more test cases. Specifying test conditions at a detailed level can help to identify test coverage gaps, which are the areas or aspects of the component or system that are not covered by the test conditions or test cases. By identifying test coverage gaps, the test team can ensure that the testing is complete and consistent with the test objectives and scope. Test Conditions - ISTQB not-for-profit association Reference: Certified Tester Advanced Level Test Manager (CTAL-TM) - ISTQB not-for-profit association, ISTQB Test Manager Certification - ISTQB Exams Worldwide - ISTQB Official Registration, Test Conditions - ISTQB not-for-profit association
NEW QUESTION # 99
Which of the following is an advantage of specifying test conditions at a detailed level?
- A. Improves maintainability and reduces ownership costs for the testware
- B. Can be used to leverage use cases for acceptance testing
- C. Saves time
- D. Can be used to identify test coverage gaps
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Can be used to identify test coverage gaps. This is because test conditions are the items or events of a component or system that will be verified by one or more test cases. Specifying test conditions at a detailed level can help to identify test coverage gaps, which are the areas or aspects of the component or system that are not covered by the test conditions or test cases. By identifying test coverage gaps, the test team can ensure that the testing is complete and consistent with the test objectives and scope. Test Conditions - ISTQB not-for-profit association References: Certified Tester Advanced Level Test Manager (CTAL-TM) - ISTQB not-for-profit association, ISTQB Test Manager Certification - ISTQB Exams Worldwide - ISTQB Official Registration, Test Conditions - ISTQB not-for-profit association
NEW QUESTION # 100
You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist. Which of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit
- A. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be achieved
- B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
- C. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
- D. Status compared against the started exit criteria
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 101
If you are monitoring code coverage during testing to determine what areas still need testing what type of testing is likely occurring?
- A. Functional
- B. Non-functional
- C. White-box
- D. Black-box
Answer: C
Explanation:
Context Analysis:
Monitoring code coverage is inherently tied to knowledge of the internal structure of the software, a characteristic of white-box testing.
Evaluation of Options:
A . Black-box:
Incorrect. Black-box testing focuses on functionality without knowledge of internal structures.
B . White-box:
Correct. White-box testing uses internal code knowledge to determine areas that need more coverage.
C . Functional:
Incorrect. Functional testing assesses functionality without inspecting internal code.
D . Non-functional:
Incorrect. Non-functional testing focuses on performance, usability, etc., not code coverage.
Syllabus Alignment:
ISTQB associates code coverage monitoring with white-box testing techniques (TM-1.2.6).
Reference:
ISTQB Advanced Level Test Management Syllabus (TM-1.2.6)
NEW QUESTION # 102
You are working with a development team who have a CI/CD pipeline implemented. They want to integrate your team's existing test automation into the pipeline to augment their unit tests so they will have continuous testing. They have already determined that this is technically possible with the tool you are using but with require some changes to the test automation framework to integrate the results reporting What will your team need to make this happen?
- A. A review to determine if this is the best tool to use for the integration with the CI/CD pipeline
- B. Investigation that the tool will be fit for purpose
- C. investigation of the licensing models of the tool and an understanding of any potential costs
- D. Training regarding how to make the framework modifications so the integration is possible
Answer: B
Explanation:
* Context Analysis:The question involves integrating an existing test automation framework into a CI
/CD pipeline. The integration requires modifications to the framework and results reporting. This aligns with ISTQB Advanced Test Management concepts focusing on evaluating and adapting test tools for specific project needs (Syllabus reference: TM-1.6.1 and TM-1.6.4).
* Evaluation of Options:
* A. Investigation that the tool will be fit for purpose:
* Correct. Before integrating the framework, a thorough investigation is necessary to confirm whether the tool can support the required modificationsand functionality. This aligns with the emphasis on ensuring tools meet both current and future needs as per the ISTQB syllabus section TM-1.6.1.
* B. Training regarding how to make the framework modifications so the integration is possible:
* Incorrect. While training might be useful later, it is not the first step or the primary requirement to ensure the integration is feasible.
* C. A review to determine if this is the best tool to use for the integration with the CI/CD pipeline:
* Incorrect. This step might be relevant in an earlier phase of tool selection, but the question assumes the tool has already been chosen.
* D. Investigation of the licensing models of the tool and an understanding of any potential costs:
* Incorrect. Licensing investigation is part of tool selection and budgeting, not directly related to technical integration feasibility.
* Syllabus Alignment:The ISTQB Advanced Level Test Management syllabus emphasizes the importance of ensuring the selected tools and technologies align with organizational requirements and technical feasibility. This is outlined in the "Test Tools" section of the syllabus (TM-1.6.1, TM-1.6.4).
* Conclusion:The correct answer isA. Investigation that the tool will be fit for purpose, as this step ensures the technical requirements for integration are met before proceeding with modifications or training.
References:
ISTQB Advanced Level Test Management Syllabus (TM-1.6.1 and TM-1.6.4)
ISTQB CTAL-TM Sample Exam Questions
ISTQB CTAL-TM Sample Exam Answers
NEW QUESTION # 103
Which of the following organizational structures would be considered unorthodox? [1]
- A. After developers are done unit testing, business analysts alpha test the system before handing over to a separate testing team for system testing
- B. Developers within the same team unit test each others' code prior to handing over to a separate testing team for system testing
- C. Developers and testers are integrated within the same project team, each role focusing on a different level of testing
- D. DBAs confirm the referential integrity of the database and developers complete their unit testing before handing over to
Answer: A
Explanation:
external organization for system testing
Explanation:
The unorthodox structure mentioned in option C involves business analysts performing alpha testing. Typically, alpha testing is conducted by internal staff or a team close to the development environment, not specifically by business analysts. This step is unusual as business analysts are generally responsible for requirements analysis and ensuring that the developed system meets business needs, rather than conducting alpha testing, which is more focused on identifying bugs and issues from a user's perspective.
Reference:
ISTQB Glossary, Distributed Testing
ISTQB Advanced Level Test Manager Syllabus, Section 3.2.1
Related literature on testing roles and responsibilities
NEW QUESTION # 104
IEEE 1028 also defines "management review" as a type of review. What is the main purpose of a management review? 1 credit
- A. To monitor progress, assess the status of a project, and make decisions about future actions
- B. Align technical concepts during the design phase
- C. Establish a common understanding of requirements
- D. Provide independent evaluation of compliance to processes, regulations, standards etc.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 105
Comparing TMMi and TPI, which is not a valid reason for choosing either TPI or TMMi? 2 credits
- A. If the organization is already applying CMMI, TMMi may be preferred since it has the same structure and uses the same terminology. TMMi addresses management commitment very strongly and is therefore more suitable to support a top-down improvement process.
- B. TMMi can only be used with the traditional V model,whereas TPI can be used with all types of software life cycles.
- C. If the scope of test performance improvement covers all test levels, TMMi is preferred since TPI focusses mainly on black-box testing.
- D. TPI is much more a bottom-up model that is suitable for addressing test topics for a specific (test) project.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 106
Which of the following is required to apply an experience-based testing approach''
- A. Tester knowledge of the system and its usage
- B. Detailed requirements
- C. Usage models
- D. A full risk-assessment to support risk prioritization
Answer: A
Explanation:
Experience-Based Testing:
This testing approach relies on the testers' knowledge, experience, and intuition about the system and its usage rather than formal requirements or models.
It is often used when documentation is incomplete or time constraints limit more structured approaches.
Evaluation of Options:
A (Detailed requirements) and B (Usage models) are associated with structured testing techniques.
C is correct as experience-based testing depends on the testers' understanding of the system.
D (Full risk assessment) supports risk-based testing, not experience-based testing.
Reference and Syllabus Alignment:
Experience-based testing is detailed under "Test Techniques" (TM-1.4.1) in the ISTQB syllabus.
NEW QUESTION # 107
What is the purpose of process improvement assessment models? [1]
- A. Identify the test tools needed for testing
- B. Assist in the hiring of new testers
- C. Ensure a consistent approach is used
- D. Model the failure modes of the product
Answer: C
Explanation:
Process improvement assessment models are designed to ensure a consistent approach is used in evaluating and improving processes within an organization. They provide a structured framework for assessing the current state of processes, identifying areas for improvement, and implementing changes in a systematic manner.
NEW QUESTION # 108
Which of the following can demotivate a tester? [1]
- A. Receiving direct and honest feedback on areas to improve
- B. When metrics indicate weaknesses in their testing
- C. When testing is cut short, resulting in a high number of production defects
- D. Working extra hours, resulting in a successful product deployment
Answer: C
Explanation:
This can demotivate a tester because it implies that the tester's work is not valued or respected by the management or the stakeholders. It also suggests that the tester's efforts and skills are wasted or ineffective, as the product quality is compromised and the customer satisfaction is reduced. Testing is cut short when there is insufficient time, budget, or resources allocated for testing, or when there is pressure to release the product without adequate testing. This can lead to frustration, dissatisfaction, and loss of confidence among the testers. Top 6 things that demotivate a developerHow to Demotivate Your Best Employees Reference:
Top 6 things that demotivate a developer - Amsterdam Standard
How to Demotivate Your Best Employees - HBS Working Knowledge
NEW QUESTION # 109
Which of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any life cycle model? 1 credit
- A. Some, but not all, development activities have corresponding test activities.
- B. All document reviews involve the development team.
- C. Analysis and design of tests begins as soon as development is completed.
- D. Each test level has test objectives specific to that level.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 110
What is the purpose of process improvement assessment models?
- A. Identify the test tools needed for testing
- B. Assist in the hiring of new testers
- C. Ensure a consistent approach is used
- D. Model the failure modes of the product
Answer: C
Explanation:
Process improvement assessment models are designed to ensure a consistent approach is used in evaluating and improving processes within an organization. They provide a structured framework for assessing the current state of processes, identifying areas for improvement, and implementing changes in a systematic manner.
References: The purpose of process improvement assessment models is outlined in ISTQB documentation, which emphasizes the importance of a consistent and structured approach to process improvement1. For detailed references, please consult the official ISTQB Advanced Level Test Manager documents and study guides available on the ISTQB website.
NEW QUESTION # 111
Which of the following would be the TWO most appropriate examples of entry criteria documented in the system integration test plan? 2 credits
- A. The sign-off of a performance test software release note (test item transmittal report) by both development and testing showing that system performance meets the specified acceptance criteria.
- B. The availability of the latest version of the capture-replay tool (for testing the interface with the newly developed test management tool).
- C. The percentage of decision coverage achieved during unit testing.
- D. The percentage of requirements coverage achieved during system integration test.
- E. The percentage of acceptance test procedures scheduled for execution.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 112
What is the purpose of the defect management committee?
- A. To control the flow of defect reports into the system
- B. To implement strict guidelines for defect report creation
- C. To validate defect reports and determine fix plans
- D. To ensure the developers fix all defects
Answer: C
Explanation:
* Purpose of the Defect Management Committee (DMC):
* The DMC evaluates reported defects to confirm their validity, prioritize them, and create plans for resolution.
* It ensures effective coordination between testers, developers, and stakeholders.
* Evaluation of Options:
* A(Controlling defect report flow) is a subset of validation but not the main purpose.
* Bis correct because it fully captures the committee's role.
* C(Implementing strict guidelines) is procedural, not the DMC's core function.
* D(Ensuring developers fix all defects) misrepresents the committee's authority.
References and Syllabus Alignment:
* This aligns with defect lifecycle management as described in "Defect Management" (TM-2.3.1).
NEW QUESTION # 113
Refer to SCENARIO 2 It has been agreed that the following test planning documents will be produced;
* A single overarching document outlining the general testing methodology for the whole programme of work
* A subordinate test plan for each of the three projects
* A separate test plan for performance testing within each project
Which one of the following options BEST describes the type of test management document that will meet the programme requirements?
- A. Option 4.
- B. Option 3.
- C. Option 2.
- D. Option 1.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 114
Evaluate the status of the project against the defined exit criteria. Which of the following options shows the correct status? 2 credits
- A. Criteria A = OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = NOT OK
- B. Criteria A = NOT OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = OK
- C. Criteria A = OK, criteria B = OK, criteria C = OK
- D. Criteria A = NOT OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = NOT OK
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 115
Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for the project manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be used to report to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management. 1 credit
- A. State recommendations for release
- B. Show trend analysis
- C. Show details on effort spent
- D. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
- E. Give product risk status
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 116
You have investigated different possibilities and selected four of them to present to IT management. Which of the proposals will you most likely give your highest recommendations? 3 credits
- A. Solution from a tool vendor offering to educate two test team members in the use of their easyto- use test automation capture replay tool over the first 3 month and based on that build the regression test suite. In addition to Vicki, Steve is the only one that has time available to be educated.
- B. Insourcing of test automation based on an offer from a local company ABC that has people who are specialists in system level capture-replay automation tools and they also do regular training courses in test automation methods and tools. They can then work closely with Vicki.
- C. Outsourcing of test automation based on an offer from an Asian company, AsiaAutoTest, which has people who are specialists in system level capture-replay automation tools. They also offer training and besides they offer to run and maintain the regression tests in the future.
- D. Internal offer from the development department of XYZ to create the regression package using CppUnit as test automation tool. One of the development groups have very good experiences in automating unit tests, and they are willing to do training as well.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 117
Which of the following organizational structures would be considered unorthodox?
- A. After developers are done unit testing, business analysts alpha test the system before handing over to a separate testing team for system testing
- B. Developers within the same team unit test each others' code prior to handing over to a separate testing team for system testing
- C. DBAs confirm the referential integrity of the database and developers complete their unit testing before handing over to external organization for system testing
- D. Developers and testers are integrated within the same project team, each role focusing on a different level of testing
Answer: A
Explanation:
The unorthodox structure mentioned in option C involves business analysts performing alpha testing.
Typically, alpha testing is conducted by internal staff or a team close to the development environment,not specifically by business analysts. This step is unusual as business analysts are generally responsible for requirements analysis and ensuring that the developed system meets business needs, rather than conducting alpha testing, which is more focused on identifying bugs and issues from a user's perspective.
References:
ISTQB Glossary, Distributed Testing
ISTQB Advanced Level Test Manager Syllabus, Section 3.2.1
Related literature on testing roles and responsibilities
NEW QUESTION # 118
You are writing the project test plan and are analysing the following risks in the project risk register:
Which would be the MOST appropriate test activities to mitigate the product risks?
- A. Apply portability testing for Risk 1 and schedule it ahead of security testing for Risk 4 and finally performance testing for Risk 2. Embed users with visual disabilities into the design team for Risk 3
- B. Ignore Risk 1 as this cannot be mitigated by testing activities. Apply security testing for Risk 4 and schedule it ahead of performance testing for Risk 2. Conduct reviews of early screen designs and involve users with visual disabilities
- C. Ignore Risk 1 as this cannot be mitigated by testing activities. Apply performance testing for Risk 2 and schedule it ahead of security testing for Risk 4. Disregard Risk 3 as it cannot be mitigated by test activities
- D. Ignore Risk 1 as this is not within scope of a project test strategy. Apply performance testing for Risks 2 and 4, but schedule Risk 4 testing first. Ensure end-users with visual disabilities are involved during UAT
Answer: B
Explanation:
Risk 1 is about environment availability, aproject risk, not a product risk - cannot be mitigated by test execution.
For Risk 2 (performance), conductperformance testing; for Risk 4 (security), dosecurity testingfirst due to severity.
For Risk 3, earlyusability reviewsand involving users with disabilities supports accessibility testing.
"Risk-based testing... involves the identification of product risks and the assessment of each risk's likelihood and impact... Testing is used as a risk mitigation activity".
"User experience (UX) feedback might not meet product expectations" is listed as a quality risk example.
NEW QUESTION # 119
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